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Im stuck on this one:
And im stuck. I havent done anything basically, just laid out the background for the proof. Can someone help?
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Maybe Ricky has a better proof than this. Ricky?
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I'll leave it to you to judge whether or not this is "better".
As Jane did, assume a is not 1. Let the order of x be n. Then for all integers m, (x^m)^n = 1. That is, a^n = 1, giving that k divides n. Now k | n | pk and hence either n = k or n = pk. If k = n, then 1 = x^n = x^k = a, but we assumed a is not 1. Therefore, n = pk.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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Well, it would seem that a large part of the proof has to do with number theory and divisibility rather than directly with group theory.
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Of course once you find a property in a field of mathematics that involves divisibility, you're going to be doing some number theory. That is unavoidable.
But there is nothing wrong with a number theoretic proof. I tend to like proofs where fields branch over: algebra in analysis, field theory in number theory, etc. Actually, one of my favorite proofs is a topological proof on the infinite amount of primes.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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