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I have this exercise for homework and it was essentially trivial to prove which leads me to think I somehow did something wrong.
In my opinion, my proof seems valid, my only doubt is the fact that I dont ever use the fact that p is a prime number. It seems to hold for any positive number p. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks.
Last edited by LuisRodg (2009-02-21 16:51:00)
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Thanks a lot Jane for checking my proof!
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