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That was a dead-on analysis of my confused mind! I want you to run through my thoughts to see if I'm getting it alright. Here we go... (I've used the definition of measure from Wikipedia)
A measure μ is a function that is defined on a σ-algebra Σ over a set X and taking values in the extended interval [0,∞] such that the following properties are satisfied:
1) The empty set has measure zero
2) Countable additivity or σ-additivity: if E1, E2, E3, ... is a countable sequence of pairwise disjoint sets in Σ, the measure of the union of all the Ei is equal to the sum of the measures of each Ei.
Why is the measure defined on a σ-algebra, and not on any arbitrary set?
The properties of a σ-algebra facilitate the fulfillment of the conditions placed on any measure:
1) A σ-algebra guarantees the existence of the empty set and hence the measure of the empty set can be defined. It depends on the application to assign a value of zero to the measure of the empty set for condition (1) to be satisfied.
2) The property of a σ-algebra being closed under countable unions guarantees that the sum of the measures of a countable number of disjoint sets in Σ can be represented as the measure of another set (which will be the result of the countable unions) in Σ. Whether the condition (2) is satisfied or not solely depends on the way the measure is defined for the various (elementary) sets in Σ.
Here are some lingering doubts:
1) Is there any more relationship between σ-algebra and measure that is basic, and cannot be derived?
2) Suppose I look at a probability problem and construct a sample space Ω and assign probabilities to all the elementary events in Ω, satisfying the properties of μ(Ø) = 0 and sum of all elementary events being equal to 1, i.e. μ(Ω) = 1. Does it mean that I am safe now and wouldn't have to worry about whether an event (a subset of Ω) is measurable or not? How about the case of an infinite sequence of events? Are there any concerns lurking out there?
Thanks Ricky!
I think I understand sigma-algebra and measurable sets to some extent. I have these unresolved doubts:
1) Given a sample space, does it mean that a subset of the power set of the sample space, which is not a sigma-algebra is not measurable?
2) How is a sigma-algebra over a sample space always measurable? How does the property of being closed under complementation and countable unions lead to the measurable criteria?
Maybe, I'm not asking the right questions. But if someone can set my understanding right, that'll be great.
Cheers!
Zhivago...
I'm in India; have a bachelor's degree in engineering, and it's been a long time since I graduated (1997). I have gone through the calculus courses in college, but not real analysis. And to be frank, I never concentrated on mathematics. Now I'm thinking of pursuing higher studies, and I want to do some self-study and improve my mathematical skills. So, I want to get really good at calculus, linear algebra, and probability theory so that I can apply them with ease in my higher studies. I just started brushing up the basics.
I'm familiar with the concepts of algebraic structures, but never delved into it. What you said makes sense to me now.
Thanks a bunch Ricky!
What I got was that - the field axiom regarding the existence of multiplicative inverse doesn't apply to the zero element.
I didn't know anything about multiplicative and additive groups, but after reading about them I can make sense of whatever you said. But what I didn't get is the link between multiplicative group and my question.
I was assuming that a field needs to have at least two elements because of the presence of two binary operations. I guess that was a totally wrong one. What you said makes the perfect sense now, because one needs to consider the existence of the zero and identity elements too. Right?!
I'm trying to lay a very strong foundation before I jump into calculus and learn its concepts. It seems like I will need a firm grounding in set theory, real number system, and proof by mathematical induction. Right now, I'm looking at the real number system using the books by T.M. Apostol (Calculus I) & R.G. Bartle (Elements of Real Analysis). Can you suggest anything else that would be good?
Thanks Ricky!
Such an idiot I'm! Got what I was missing Sorry for the trouble guys...
By definition, do the Field Axioms of the real number system apply to the zero (0) and the unit/identity (1) elements too? I'm asking this because there is no element for the zero element with respect to the operation of multiplication that will yield the identity element (1). I know I'm missing something somewhere. I'll really appreciate if someone can take out the time to provide some clarification.
Thanks,
Zhivago...
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